Both passages mention good and spectacular deeds done in Jesus name,
yet Christ evaluation of these two passages are so different. In the
first one he says that such people are in His side and to the second
group he says, "I don't know you. Depart from me you evildoers!"
I
have managed to garner a few hypothesis from my search to reconcile this apparent contradiction. The first is
that the miracles performed by the person in Matthew is not by God but
by evil spirits, though the person had invoked the name of God (see http://www.ukapologetics.net/mightywork.htm).
I am doubtful of this explanation in light of what Jesus replied to the
Pharisees in Matthew 3:25 when the Pharisees accused Jesus of driving
out demons by using the power of the prince of demons. Jesus seems to
have rebuffed the doctrine that Satan would support the design of
him(Satan) driving out another demon. I do see that there is grounds for
the possibility for someone to invoke the name of God to do miracles as
a guise for the wielding of evil powers such as cults who infuse
christian references and symbolisms in the crafts.
The other hypothesis that I got from http://bible.cc/matthew/7-21.htm under Barnes commentary seems to posit that though the powers that were exercised in Matthew were from God, they were not done to God's will. Barnes describes the power that is being exercised in Matthew 7:21 as one in an "agency" mode, such that the holder of the power is free to wield it in a manner which he likes after it has been endowed by God. In such a sense then, though the power bestowed is of divine origins, it can be done for reasons other than God's will.
A personal hypothesis that I may offer, is that the working of miracles through the name of God is not enough to merit salvation. And hence, even though one is able to invoke and exercise successfully divine powers, this is not sufficient if he has not accepted Christ, thus being treated in the manner as depicted in the passage where Jesus replies that he does not know the person.
The other hypothesis that I got from http://bible.cc/matthew/7-21.htm under Barnes commentary seems to posit that though the powers that were exercised in Matthew were from God, they were not done to God's will. Barnes describes the power that is being exercised in Matthew 7:21 as one in an "agency" mode, such that the holder of the power is free to wield it in a manner which he likes after it has been endowed by God. In such a sense then, though the power bestowed is of divine origins, it can be done for reasons other than God's will.
A personal hypothesis that I may offer, is that the working of miracles through the name of God is not enough to merit salvation. And hence, even though one is able to invoke and exercise successfully divine powers, this is not sufficient if he has not accepted Christ, thus being treated in the manner as depicted in the passage where Jesus replies that he does not know the person.
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