I went to church last week for Good Friday and Easter
Sunday services. I can vaguely recall what the sermon was about for easter, but
there was one point made on the passage of John 19 when Jesus was being
interrogated by Pontius Pilate which stuck out to me. In verse 11, Jesus
answered Pilate after Pilate had told Jesus that he had the power to crucify
him and release him that Pilate could have no power against him unless it was
given from above, and therefore, the one who delivered him to Pilate has the
greater sin. According to the pastor, Jesus was telling Pilate that God’s power
was greater than Pilate’s, and that if God had not ordained Pilate to have such
power, he would not have been able to boast of it. With regards to who is being
referred to as having the greater sin for delivering Jesus to Pilate, the
pastor says that this refers to the chief priest, Caiaphas.
I was perplexed by this verse because the sentencing
suggest some relation between the power that had been given from above to
Pilate, and the one having the greater sin for delivering Jesus to Pilate. It
seemed that a literal interpretation might suggest that the one from above is
guilty of the greater sin for delivering Jesus to Pilate. I was checking
commentaries about this passage during service, but the more devotional sources
online expresses similar opinions with what my pastor says, although some
commentaries suggest that Judas Iscariot was included in the one referred to as
having delivered Jesus and thus being guilty of the greater sin.
I looked up the passage online again today, and found
that there were a few forums (see here and here) where
some commentators expressed the same perplex about the verse. One answer on the
forum referred to the original language of the word ‘from above’, anōthen, as
being used in other passages of the bible, and in most instances referring to
God or heaven, but it disapproves of the idea that the authority mentioned as
being guilty of the greater sin refers to God and that this refers rather to
the Chief Priest and the Sanhedrin. However, it doesn’t really explain why the
logical structure of the sentence is the way it is. Why is there the word
‘therefore’?
I looked up the word ‘therefore’ in
its original language on blue letter bible. The original language is in greek,
and is called dia. I am wondering
whether ‘therefore’ has a different connotation in its original form. From my
brief perusal, it would seem that the word ‘therefore’ is used in a manner
largely consistent with how one may understand it in today’s times. But there
are some instances in other passage where the way ‘therefore’ is used in other
parts of the bible where I find them as perplexing as the John 19:11 verse. For
example, Matthew 12:30 – 31 writes “Whoever is not with me is against me, and
whoever does not gather with me scatters. Therefore I tell you, every sin and
blasphemy will be forgiven people, but the blasphemy against the Spirit will
not be forgiven.” I am again perplexed as to how the second part of the passage
relates to the first. What relation does blasphemy against the Spirit being
unforgivable have to do with whether one is with or against Jesus?
I was hoping that the easier solution to John 19:11
would be to interpret the one from above as mentioned by Jesus as referring to
the authority who had delivered Jesus to Pilate. I thought it would make sense
if it was Caiaphas who had given authority to Pilate to put Jesus to death, and
is therefore guilty of the greater sin for being the principal of the decision.
But in light of the argument that ‘from above’ in its original language has
largely been used to refer to God or heaven, I don’t think this interpretation is
as viable as I would had first thought.
If the correct interpretation to be taken is that the
one from above refers to God, and the one who delivered Jesus to Pilate and is
guilty of the greater sin is the Chief Priest, perhaps a way to explain the
logical connection would be that God has given the right to Pilate to put Jesus
to death, but this is not so for the Chief Priest, and therefore, the Chief
Priest is guilty of a greater sin since his exercise of authority to crucify
Jesus is not intended by God, whilst that of Pontius Pilate is.
1 comment:
Hi Sam! I was looking at what E-Sword commentaries had, and here is what Wesley said:
"Thou couldst have no power over me - For I have done nothing to expose me to the power of any magistrate. Therefore he that delivered me to thee, namely, Caiaphas, knowing this, is more blamable than thou."
I think what Wesley may be saying is that Pilate did not know that power was given to him from above, and that was why Jesus was telling him that. Caiaphas, however, did know that power was given to him from above, so Caiaphas was guilty of a greater sin.
That interpretation somewhat overlaps with yours. It may not solve everything, but it's one solution I find.
Excellent question! I love questions like that.
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